Re: Profit and Value, was: Re(2): [ox-en] extrinsic motivation = coercion
- From: Patrick Anderson <agnucius gmail.com>
- Date: Wed, 6 May 2009 15:29:11 -0600
On Wed, May 6, 2009 at 3:03 PM, marc fawzi <marc.fawzi gmail.com> wrote:
in a true equilibrium anyone who wishes to get X number or amount of some good or service
should be able to do so at the median cost of that good or service + a fixed profit 'margin'
Why do you and Franz say there *must* there be a profit 'margin'?
If you say "as a return for the investors", then I ask:
But what if the investors (and therefore owners) are the only
consumers? For in that case, there would be no profit ... but does
imply there can be no production when the owner of an apple tree is
the sole consumer (eats all the apples himself)?
Notice the owner(s) are not required to be the worker(s) for those
Means of Production.
If a quadriplegic apple tree owner hired some workers to pick apples
with money/tokens he earned by giving talks, he would pay those costs
as Wages, but still would not pay profit, for who would he pay it to?
Sincerely,
Patrick
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