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From proto-mode to prostitute-mode (was: Re: [jox] A response to Michel and Jakob)

Hi all!

Well, this is really all very, very off-topic. However, the maintainer
doesn't seem to care so why should I...

Last week (11 days ago) Michel Bauwens wrote:
my position is different, I call it

[Where "it" is p2p.]

a proto-mode of production, because it
cannot as yet fully reproduce itself ... precedents are the existence of
coloni with the slave-based Roman Empire, or the existing of enterprise
within a dominant feudal mode ... for example, capitalist enterprise was
dependent on granted monopolies and could not reproduce itself
independently ..

Well, though we can talk of capitalism for 200-400 years it still can
not fully reproduce itself. In fact there are estimates that about two
third of societal neccessary work is *not* done in the market sphere.
Thus we clearly have a form of proto-mode of production since Michel's
criterion was *full* reproduction of itself.

A free market society - may be the one you, Michel, are suggesting -
needs to function *completely* on a market basis - otherwise it is
only in what you call a proto-mode.

For instance that would mean that sexual needs and desires are fully
commercialized. Though today we are quite a step in this direction
Free Sex is still practiced. The market logic would argue that by Free
Sex you hinder prostitutes and other sexual workers from making money.
That would probably be a very rational argument to leave the
proto-mode and to end up in - hmm... - the prostitute-mode of



"Software is like sex - it's better when it's Free" -- unknown author

Thread: joxT00859 Message: 17/21 L3 [In date index] [In thread index]
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